If Christianity has failed, how and why did it fail?
Was Christianity meant to fail because it is internally inconsistent, if Christianity is indeed idolatry?
If idolatry is the worship of anything that isn't God, how is Jesus God?
How is Christianity not idolatry and blasphemy if it is the Christian narrative that Jesus was convicted of and crucified for blasphemy?
By their own admission Christians have been worshiping a man convicted of and crucified for blasphemy for 2000 years.
The Doctrine of the Trinity requires Christians to worship Jesus as the co-equal of the God of Israel who is also Allah. It requires Christians to believe that Jesus is co-eternal and co-substantial with God. That would be the supreme and eternal Abrahamic God who created the Universe. Christians are required to believe that Jesus created the Universe after impregnating Mary who was a gave birth to him as a virgin. Christians are required to believe that God caused Mary to give birth to Him to save the world - which He created - from Himself.
Christianity began to fail when Christians ceased their Christian practice of burning heretics at the stake. The last execution for blasphemy - and it was blasphemy to deny the divinity of Jesus - was in 1692.
Christianity was used to support the divine right of absolute monarchs and this age has long since passed. Christianity is therefore an unworkable anachronism that cannot be returned to, unless it is the plan to revive the Christian practice of heretic burning and the fining of citizens who do not attend church.
Does anyone seriously think that Constantine the Great would have used Christianity as the new religion of the Roman Empire if Islam had been an option?
The American Revolution was a rejection of monarchy and Christianity. This was confirmed in the French Revolution and reconfirmed in the Russian Revolution.
In any case, Christianity is the antithesis of Judaism because it is compulsory idolatry and blasphemy. The Torah prescribes death for Jews convicted of idolatry and blasphemy.
In 1168, Henry II threatened to convert to Islam in a letter to the Pope. As long ago as that, the corrupt bargain between European monarchs and the Pope was already breaking down.
In 1649, the subjects of Charles I committed regicide, which was clear failure of the purpose for which Christianity was adopted by British monarchs.
If the only moral and rational option of Islam is not adopted, it can only be attributed to Islamophobia, can it not?
The obvious inability of British intellectuals and clergymen to engage honestly and rationally on the matter of a failed moral system is yet another conclusive sign that Christianity is not fit for the purpose for which it was originally intended and that the original purpose - that of supporting the divine right of absolute monarchs to rule - long ago ceased to exist.
When will the penny drop? How many more centuries will it take?
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